What is the most plausible explanation of this paradoxical fact?

http://www.upi.com/Health_News/2015/12/07/Study-Patients-less-satisfied-with-doctors-who-prescribe-fewer-antibiotics/6851449499931/

Is it possible that the lack of payment of drugs should be a potent factor of dissatisfaction? If you have to pay for antibiotics you should be very happy with your GP if he says to you: you don't need drugs!